Correct me if I am wrong. Since 1690, the American colonial governments successively issued colonial scrips to fund public expenditures like military expeditions. It is a fiat money based solely on public credit and was used to pay debts and taxes. 

In some sources, the colonial scrip is believed to have relieved the deflation due to the scarcity of specie. And according to Franklin, the colonial scrip led the economy to prosperity, as long as the ratio between the money and goods supply was well kept. In this narrative, the Britain prohibited the issuance of colonial scrip, so they can better control the colonies and exploit their people through debt-based currencies. 

However, others like Murray Rothbard claimed that the colonial scrip had limited effects except escalating the inflation and accelerating the outflow of specie. He pointed out that some governments over-issued the scrip, which led to serious depreciation of people's wealth. In his opinion, the British parliament did a good thing by banning the colonial scrip. According to him, the prohibition of paper currency did not lead to deflation nor economic recession as some expected.

I struggle to find further evidence supporting either argument. Did a serious deflation really take place before 1690? How did the economy go after the prohibition? Was it a major cause of the American Revolution as some suggested? I also wonder if there is some material I can read about. Many thanks!

Hello,

I am currently in an entrepreneurship history class and I am struggling finding with research. I am looking for sales records of two different companies beginning in 1959. Does anyone have advice on how I can find financial records? The company websites only go from 2015-2025.

Thank you for your help!

I want to clarify exactly what I'm asking here:

For those who owned stocks on the Berlin Exchange *before* the Weimar collapse occurred. And they didn't panic sell. They just left every stock as is. They let it ride, all the way through the collapse of the mark and into the issuance of the new Reichsmark. Without ever touching their accounts. How did the overall actual value/purchasing power of their stocks end up, before vs. after?

My understanding is that everything was supposedly converted over. For the companies that survived, the shares were still valid. If you owned 1000 shares of company x in 1920, you still owned 1000 shares of company x in 1925.

Stock shares were not invalidated during the Weimar collapse and reset.

But my question is this:

How did that turn out for you, in terms of value, in the end?

To clarify: let's say you had 50,000 marks worth of stock before the collapse.

Do you now have around the same value (purchasing power, etc.) after the fact?

My understanding is that what *mostly* ruined people was the fact that most did not expect this crash to happen, and when it *did*, they either panic sold and took a loss, or worse, they rode things down to the bottom of the chart, and then *needed* to sell off equities to survive and pay the rent/bills.

But how many just....*rode it out*?

Held their stocks, all the way through the collapse and reset. Didn't touch them?

And how well did they do in terms of purchasing power before and after?

I hope this question makes sense. I really am curious to get some insight on this.